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PSC PREVIOUS EXAM QUESTIONS 2020 - December (Question Paper-01)

2020 - December (Question Paper-01)

(ഈ ചോദ്യപേപ്പർ പി.ഡി.എഫ്. ചുവടെ നിന്നും ഡൗൺലോഡ് ചെയ്യാം)

1. The Harappan site Kalibangan situated on the banks of river
A) Saraswathi 
B) Ghaggar
C) Hindon 
D) Bhogavo
Answer: (B)

2. Which one of the following dynasties of Kashmir mentioned in Rajatharangini written by Kalhana
A) Aditya 
B) Karkota
C) Lohara 
D) All the above
Answer: (D)

3. The Third Buddhist Council convened by Ashoka at Pataliputra was presided over by Buddhist saint
A) Upagupta 
B) Aswagosha
C) Mogali Putta Tissa 
D) Nagarjuna
Answer: (C)

4. One of the Delhi Sultanate ruler was not ready to recognise the authority of Calipha
A) Qutubuddin Mubarak   
B) Alauddin Khilji
C) Iltutmish 
D) Balban
Answer: (A)

5.  “If there be paradise on earth, it is this, it is this, it is this” -words of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan engraved in the walls of
A) Moti Masjid, Agra 
B) Taj Mahal
C) Diwan-i-Khas, Delhi 
D) Red Fort, Delhi
Answer: (C)

6. The social reformer wrote ‘Gift of Monotheist’
A) Dayananda Saraswathi  
B) Vivekananda
C) Annie Besant 
D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Answer: (D)

7. Indian nationalist characterised British conquest of India as “Everlasting, increasing, everyday increasing foreign invasion”
A) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee 
B) Dada Bai Naorojee
C) Surendra Nath Banerjee 
D) Romesh Chandra Dutt
Answer: (B)

8. Which of the following related with 1857 Revolt is not correctly matched?
A) Delhi- General Bakht Khan 
B) Lucknow- Hazrat Mahal
C) Bihar- Hafiz Rahmat Khan 
D) Farizabhad- Maulavi Ahmadullah
Answer: (C)

9. Who among the following was selected as second Sathyagrahi by Gandhi during Individual Satyagraha?
A) Sardar Vallabai Patel   
B) Acharya Vinobha Bhave
C) Jawaharlal Nehru 
D) Jayaprakash Narayana
Answer: (C)

10. The Chairman of the State Reorganisation Commission of 1953
A) Fazal Ali 
B) K. M. Panikkar
C) Govind Vallabh Pant   
D) H. N. Kunzru
Answer: (A)

11. Match List I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :
List I                                            List II
a) K. Ayyappan                   1) Sarvamatha Samarasyam
b) Vaghbhatanandan           2) Swedeshabhimani
c) Chattampi Swamikal        3) Atmavidya Kahalam
d) Vakkam Moulavi              4) Sahodaran
Codes :
A) a – 2  b – 4 c – 1 d – 3
B) a – 4  b – 3 c – 1 d – 2
C) a – 3  b – 4 c – 2 d – 1
D) a – 4  b – 1 c – 3 d – 2
Answer: (B)

12. Consider the following statements about the All Kerala Political Conference held in 1928
1) The conference was held at Payyannur
2) Jawaharlal Nehru was the President of the Conference 
3) It was the second All Kerala Political Conference
4) It passed a resolution requesting Indian National Congress to adopt complete independence as the goal of the National Movement
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) 2, 3 and 4 
B) 1, 2 and 3 
C) 1, 2 and 4 
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (C)

13. Which of the following Act made any transfer of land owned by a member of Scheduled Tribe to a person other than a member of Scheduled Tribe invalid from 1 January 1960?
A) The Kerala Scheduled Tribes (Restriction on Transfer of Lands and Restoration of Alienated Lands) Act, 1975
B) The Kerala Scheduled Tribes (Restriction on Transfer of Lands and Restoration of Alienated Lands) Act, 1971
C) Kerala Tribal Land Transfer Restriction Act, 1970
D) Kerala Tribal Land Transfer Restriction Act, 1971
Answer: (A)
  
14. In what year was the election to the Kerala Legislative Assembly in which the total number of constituencies was increased to 140 for the first time?
A) 1960 
B) 1965 
C) 1970 
D) 1977
Answer: (D)
 
15. Which of the following statements on The Aikya Kerala Conference held at Trichur is/are correct?
1) The Conference was held in 1947 
2) The President was K. Kelappan
3) Maharaja Cochin Sri Kerala Varma attended the Conference
A) 1 only 
B) 1 and 2 only 
C) 2 and 3 only 
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D)

16. Which Bill was introduced during the first EMS Government to enact a comprehensive legislation relating to agrarian reforms in the State of Kerala?
A) The Kerala Agrarian Relations Bill, 1957
B) Kerala Agrarian Reform  Bill, 1957
C) Land Reform Bill, 1958
D) Kerala Land  and Agrarian Reform Bill, 1958 
Answer: (A)

17. Arrange the following in chronological order :
1) Muthanaga Struggle
2) Save Silent Valley Movement
3) Chengara Struggle
4) Submission of Kasturirangan Report
A) 2, 4, 1 and 3 
B) 2, 1, 3 and 4 
C) 1, 2, 4 and 3 
D) 2, 3, 1 and 4
Answer: (B)
18. Who among the following formed International Pro-India Committee in Zurich?
A) V. K. Krishna Menon   
B) K. B. Menon
C) Chempaka Raman Pillai 
D) M. N. Roy 
Answer: (C)

19. Name the Chief Minister of Kerala who translated ‘A Short History of the World’ by 
H. G. Wells into Malayalam.
A) E. M. S. 
B) C. Achutha Menon
C) E. K. Nayanar 
D) P. K. Vasudevan Nair
Answer: (B)

20. When did Union Cabinet grant classical status to Malayalam language?
A) 2010 
B) 2012 
C) 2013 
D) 2015 
Answer: (C)

21. Consider the following pairs :
Inventions                   Inventors
1) Flying Shuttle   –     John Key
2) Spinning Jenny   –   Ely Whitney
3) Automatic Loom –    Edmund Cartwright
Which of the pairs given above is correctly matched?
A) 1 only 
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only 
D) 2 and 3 only 
Answer: (C)

22. Which one of the following is not a treaty drafted to make the peace of Paris (1919-20)?
A) Treaty of Versailles 
B) Treaty at St. Germain
C) Treaty at Sevres 
D) Treaty of Brest Litovsk  
Answer: (D)

23. Consider the following :
1) Individuals are not responsible for their actions.
2) Religion makes a man weak.
3) Support for factory system.
4) Introducing National Workshops run by the state.
Which of the above is the feature of Robert Owen’s philosophy?
A) 1 and 2 only 
B) 1, 2 and 3 
C) 3 and 4 only 
D) 1 and 4 only
Answer: (B)
 
24. Karl Marx was awarded the doctorate degree from which university and in which discipline?
A) University of Bonn in Humanities 
B) University of Jena in Philosophy
C) University of Mosco in Socialism 
D) University of Cambridge in Marxism
Answer: (B)

25. With reference to the Globalisation in India, consider the following statements :
1) Increase in flow of investments
2) Faster flow of information
3) Pace of life is slowed down
4) Fostering parochial attitude.
Which of the statement given above is incorrect?
A) 1 and 2 only 
B) 2 and 3 only 
C) 3 and 4 only 
D) 1 and 4 only 
Answer: (C)

26. With reference to Colonialism the following distinct phases are visible in the post Renaissance practice :
1) Commercial and industrial colonialism
2) New Imperialism
3) Neo-colonialism and Globalization
4) Cold war.
Which of the above phases are incorrect?
A) 1 only 
B) 1 and 2 only 
C) 3 and 4 only 
D) 4 only
Answer: (D)

27. Consider the following :
1) By reducing the wage rates 
2) By extending the working hours
3) By decreasing the productivity of the labour
4) Vibrant trade unianism.
Which of the above is the process of the accumulation of capital to raise the surplus value?
A) 1 only 
B) 1 and 2 only 
C) 3 only 
D) 3 and 4 only
Answer: (B)

28. With reference to the result of World War II, consider the following statements :
1) Albania became independent and a communist state
2) Austria was separated from Germany
3) Finland ceded some territories to USA
4) Hungary and Bulgaria come under the capitalist governments.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 only 
B) 1 and 2 only 
C) 2 and 3 only 
D) 1 and 4 only
Answer: (B)

29. In the process of decolonisation, consider the following statements :
1) Self Government for white settler colonies
2) Formal end to empire followed by independent rule
3) Formal empire replaced by informal empire
4) Mere change of imperial masters.
Which statement given above are correct?
A) 1 only 
B) 1 and 2 only 
C) 1, 2, 3 only 
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B)
 
30. With reference to the impact of colonialism, consider the following statements :
1) Drain of resources
2) Slave trade
3) Proselytisation
4) Static lifestyle.
Which of the statement given above is correct?
A) 1 and 2 only 
B) 1, 2 and 3 
C) 3 and 4 only 
D) 4 only
Answer: (B)

31. With reference to the megalithic culture of Kerala, consider the following statements :
1) It is associated with funeral cult
2) Settlement sites are rarely discovered.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only 
B) 2 only 
C) Both 1 and 2 
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C)

32. Consider the following pairs :
Structure                      Function
1) Koothambalam –      Temple theatre
2) Thidappally  –          Temple kitchen
3) Vathilmadam  –        Sanctum sanctorum
Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A) 1 only 
B) 1 and 2 only 
C) 2 and 3 only 
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B)

33. Which among the following Non-Keralites composed a book on the arts and crafts of Travancore?
A) Stella Kramrisch B) Kathleen Gough C) Robin Jeffrey  D) Burton Stein
Answer: (A)

34. In which of the following inscriptions earliest reference to Izhavar is made?
A) Muccunti Inscription   
B) Nedumpuram Tali Inscription
C) Therisappalli Copper Plates 
D) Tiruvannur Inscription
Answer: (C)

35. Which one of the following is not correct about Lilatilakam?
A) It is a 14th-century work
B) It is a treatise on the grammar of Manipravalam language
C) It is an anonymous work
D) It is a part of the collection called Bhakti literature
Answer: (D)

36. With reference to Naduvazhi Swaroopams of Kerala, consider the following statements :
1) They were ruling houses with matrilineal descent
2) Among them Kochi was the most influential.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only 
B) 2 only 
C) Both 1 and 2 
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A)

37. Edakkal pictures belong to which of the following category?
A) Painting 
B) Carving 
C) Engraving 
D) Mural
Answer: (C)
38. Consider the following pairs :
Work                                       Author
1) Vedadhikara Nirupanam – Chattambi Swamikal
2) Atmopadesha Satakam – Ayya Vaikunda Swami
3) Acharabhushanam – Pandit Karuppan
Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A) 1 only 
B) 1 and 2 only 
C) 1 and 3 only 
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C)

39. Of the following social movements of Kerala, which one addressed the question of inequality within the Christian community?
A) Samatva Samajam 
B) Pratyaksha Raksha Daiva Sabha
C) Cochin Pulaya Mahasabha 
D) Sahodara Sangham
Answer: (B)

40. Benjamin Bailey is associated with the publication of the first newspaper in Kerala called
A) Nasrani Deepika 
B) Paschimodayam
C) West Coast Spectator   
D) Jnana Nikshepam
Answer: (D)

41. The most profound influence and material source of the Constitution of India is the
A) Indian Independence Act, 1947 
B) The Government of India Act, 1919
C) Government of India Act, 1935 
D) Indian Councils Act, 1909
Answer: (C)

42. Article 38(2) of the Constitution stipulates
A) State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life.
B) The state shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provisions for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.
C) The state shall endeavour to secure, by suitable legislation or economic organization or in any other way, to all works, agricultural, industrial or otherwise, work, living wage, conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life and full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities and, in particular, the state shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.
D) The state shall, in particular, strive to minimise the inequalities in income, and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.
Answer: (D)

43. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and to administer such property in accordance with law?
A) 25 
B) 26 
C) 27 
D) 30
Answer: (B)
 
44. With reference to the source of Indian Constitution which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A) U. K. Constitution  – Lawmaking Procedure
B) Canadian Constitution – Federation with Strong Centre
C) U. S. Constitution – Single Citizenship
D) Irish Constitution – Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer: (C)

45. Article 51A (g) deals with
A) National flag 
B) Develop a scientific temper
C) To strive towards excellence in all spheres 
D) Protection of environment
Answer: (D)

46. Which one of the Article does not require a special majority of legislatures of not less than one-half of the states by resolution to that effect passed by the those legislatures before the bill making provision for such amendment is presented to the President for assent?
A) Article 55 
B) Article 169 
C) Article 241 
D) Article 73
Answer: (B)

47. Article 75 of the Constitution insists that members of the Central Council of Ministers
A) Must be member of Lok Sabha only
B) From Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha or any of the State Legislative Assemblies
C) Must be a member of either House of Parliament
D) Must not be member of Rajya Sabha
Answer: (C)

48. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) Money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
2) It can be introduced only on the recommendations of the President.
3) If any question arises whether a bill is a money bill or not the decision of the Finance Minister is final.
4) Money bill cannot be amended or rejected by Rajya Sabha.
A) 1 only 
B) 1 and 4 only 
C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 
D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (D)

49. The State Legislatures of Indian Union consists of
A) Governor, Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council, if there is one
B) Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council, if there is one
C) Council of Ministers and Council of State
D) Legislative Assembly and House of the people
Answer: (A)

50. Which Parliamentary Committee examines the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India which are laid down before the Parliament by President?
A) Committee on Public Undertaking 
B) The Public Accounts Committee
C) The Estimate Committee 
D) Committee on Papers Laid on the Table
Answer: (B)

51. Constitutional remedies enshrined in Article 32 of the Indian Constitution entrusts the responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
A) Exclusively with Supreme Court of India
B) With various Administrative Courts in India
C) With all Courts in India
D) Both with High Courts and Supreme Court of India
Answer: (A)

52. Consider the following statements :
1) The term federation has nowhere been used in the Constitution of India.
2) Constitutionally India is a union of states with an indestructible union of destructible states.
3) Indian constitution has incorporated a large number of unitary features and thus
deviated from the traditional federal systems.
4) Under the scheme of Indian constitution greater power is conferred upon the centre vis-à-vis the states.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only 
B) 3 and 4 only 
C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 
D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (C)

53. Which one of the following rights is not guaranteed as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India?
A) No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of the law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.
B) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
C) No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
D) No person accused of any offence shall be presumed guilty unless it is proved according to the procedure established by law.
Answer: (D)
 
54. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, the breach of which of the following orders amounts to an offence that is punishable with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees, or with both
A) Residence order B) Custody order 
C) Protection order D) All the above
Answer: (C)
 
55. As per clause (3) of Article 145 of the Constitution of India, which of the following cases shall be decided by a bench consisting of not less than five judges of the Supreme Court?
A) Cases involving substantial question of law of general importance
B) Cases involving substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the constitution
C) Both A) and B)
D) Neither A) nor B)
Answer: (B)

56. As regards judicial review of legislation by ‘tribunals’ established under Articles 323-A or 323-B of the Constitution, which of the following statements is correct?
A) Tribunals don’t have the powers to review the constitutional validity of any legislation
B) Tribunals have the powers to review the constitutional validity of legislations
C) Tribunals have the power to review only the subordinate legislations
D) Tribunals have the powers to review the constitutional validity of legislations excepting the validity of the parent Acts under which they are established
Answer: (D)

57. Amendment to which of the following Parts/Chapters of the Constitution require ratification by more than one-half of the States?
i) Part – III: Fundamental Rights 
ii) Chapter – IV of Part – V: Union Judiciary
iii) Chapter – V of Part – VI: State Judiciary 
iv) Chapter – VI of Part – VI: Subordinate courts
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A) All the Parts/Chapters mentioned above 
B) Only i), ii) and iii)
C) Only ii) and iii) 
D) Only ii), iii) and iv)
Answer: (C)

58. If the President of India issues proclamation under Article 352 of the Constitution of India declaring that the security of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened by ‘war’ or by ‘external aggression’, which of the following consequences ensue?
A) Only the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 stand suspended automatically
B) All fundamental rights guaranteed under Part – III of the Constitution stand automatically suspended
C) All fundamental rights guaranteed under Part – III of the Constitution (except Articles 20 and 21) stand automatically suspended
D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

59. Which of the three lists in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains an entry that explicitly includes ‘land revenue’ as a subject matter of legislation?
A) List I – Union List 
B) List II – State List
C) List III – Concurrent List  
D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
60. Which of the following disputes can be adjudicated by the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)?
i) Dispute between licensor and licensee
ii) Dispute between two or more service providers
iii) Dispute between service provider and a group of consumers
iv) Dispute between service provider and an individual consumer
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A) Only i) and ii) 
B) Only i), ii) and iii)
C) Only iii) and iv) 
D) All the disputes mentioned
Answer: (B)

61. By virtue of the principles of separation of powers incorporated under the Indian Constitution, which one of the following is impermissible?
A) Assumption, by one organ of the state, of functions that essentially belong to the other
B) Delegation of legislative powers
C) Delegation of essential legislative powers
D) Both A) and C)
Answer: (D)

62. As per Wednesbury principle, which of the following test(s) is applied to determine the unreasonableness of decisions of the executive authorities?
i) Whether the decision-making authority took into account factors that ought not to have been taken into account?
ii) Whether the decision-making authority failed to take into account factors that ought to have been taken into account?
iii) Whether the decision of the authority is so outrageous in its defiance of logic or of accepted moral standards that no sensible person who had applied his mind to the question to be decided could have arrived at such a decision?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A) All the three tests B) Only i) and ii) 
C) Only i) and iii) D) Only ii) and iii)
Answer: (A)

63. Consider the following statement which is relating to stabilization and structural adjustment programme of the IMF – World Bank
1) Stabilization which basically implies cutting down fiscal deficit and the rate of growth of money supply.
2) Domestic liberalization which consists of relaxing restrictions on production, investment prices and increasing the role of market signals in guiding resource allocations.
3) External sector liberalization or relaxing restrictions on international flows of goods, services, technology and capital.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1, 2 and 3 
B) 1 and 2 only 
C) 2 and 3 only 
D) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (A)

64. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A) WTO – Generally forbids the use of quantitative restrictions in trade
B) IMF – Provide finance to correct disequilibrium in balance of payments
C) SAARC – Promotes trade among South Asian countries
D) ASEAN – Economic organisation of all Asian countries
Answer: (D)

65. Indian Constitution provides for a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as its head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his function under which Article?
A) Article 74 
B) Article 75 
C) Article 76 
D) Article 78
Answer: (A)

66. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGA) came into force from 2nd February 2006 in
A) 500 Notified Districts   
B) 400 Notified Districts
C) 300 Notified Districts   
D) 200 Notified Districts
Answer: (D)

67. Which of the following steps have been taken by the Govt. of India to improve the working of the public sector undertaking before the adoption of its new economic policy?
1) Closure of Sick Units.
2) Nationalization of joint public-private units.
3) National Renewal Fund.
4) Golden shake hand.
The correct answer is
A) 1 and 4 
B) 2 and 4 
C) 3 and 4 
D) 2 and 3
Answer: (C)

68. “At the district level the Collector or the Deputy Commissioner should be the captain of the team of officers of all developments and should be made fully responsible for securing the necessary coordination and co-operation in the preparation and execution of the district plans for community development.” The above statement is associated with
A) Balwantrai Mehta Committee 
B) Ashok Mehta Committee
C) G.V.K. Rao Committee  
D) L.M. Singhvi Committee
Answer: (A)

69. Consider the following principles relating to United Nations to shape its policies
1) To maintain international peace and security.
2) To develop friendly relations among nations.
3) To achieve international co-operation in solving socio-economic problems of a country.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only 
B) 2 and 3 only 
C) 1 and 3 only 
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D)

70. Which one of the following element is related to transaction cost economics theory?
A) Cost benefit analysis   
B) Bounded rationality
C) Economic forecasting   
D) Social indicators
Answer: (B)
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